Trade and Wages

In a recent essay at American Compass, Michael Lind attempts to refute certain aspects of economists’ case for free trade.  Others have addressed the numerous empirical, factual, and theoretical issues with his essay.  I will focus on just one particular claim.  Lind writes:

The attack on tariffs as regressive taxes unites two of the themes of early twenty-first-century neoliberalism. One is the left-neoliberal dogma that each individual tax—not government policy or the economy as a whole—must be progressive in its effects. The other is the right-neoliberal dogma that deregulating trade and immigration to reduce wages for workers and thus reduce prices for consumers is the “efficient” and thus best policy, as long as the “winners” compensate the “losers”—preferably in the form of redistribution through the tax code.

For the sake of space, I will ignore his claim on left-dogma and focus on the claim of right-dogma: “deregulating trade and immigration to reduce wages for workers and thus reduce prices for consumers is the “efficient” and thus best policy, as long as the “winners” compensate the “losers”—preferably in the form of redistribution through the tax code.”  Lind provides no citations or links supporting his claim, so it is hard to tell who (or what), exactly, he is responding to here.  Open any trade textbook and you won’t find such dogmas he claims are there.  

Rather, I think he is referring to a potential outcome in international trade called the Factor Equalization Theorem, independently derived by Wolfgang Stolper & Paul Samuelson in 1941 and Abba Lerner in 1952.  Sparing you, dear reader, the technical details, I’ll note that the theorem states that, under certain conditions, when two countries trade the trading partner that is relatively labor abundant will see wages rise and returns to capital fall while the country that is relatively capital abundant will see returns to capital rise and wages fall.  According to this theorem, the factor prices (wages and returns to capital) will equalize across trading partners: wages will be equal between the two countries and returns to capital will be equal between the two countries.

Assuming I am correct that he is pulling off the Factor Equalization Theorem, Lind seems to be seizing on it, imparting to it certain claims no one actually holds, and claiming these as free-trade dogmas.  The problem is that the theorem hasn’t held up well to empirical scrutiny.  The assumptions in it are too strong.  In particular, the theorem requires that labor across the trading partners is virtually identical (the same with capital).  In reality, labor is not identical across many trading partners.  American workers are extraordinarily productive: we operate in a capital-fueled economy with powerful and stable institutions, high education, and generally high access to productivity-improving infrastructure.  Chinese workers, by contrast, do not: they are much less productive.  According to the World Bank, the average Chinese worker produces approximately $42,000 worth of goods and services a year.  Conversely, the average American worker produces approximately $150,000 worth of goods and services per year, making the average American worker 257% more productive than the average Chinese worker.  A Chinese worker is not a good substitute for an American worker.  We shouldn’t expect to see American wages fall toward Chinese wages with trade.  Indeed, we do not see American wages falling.

To make this point less abstract, consider the following: the New England Patriots, my hometown football team, is in desperate need of a good quarterback.  I, a 35-year old man, would love to play for the Patriots.  In fact, they could offer me the league minimum wage ($795k) and I would instantly quit my job and go play for the Patriots.  Millions of other New Englanders (and Americans, for that matter) would also take the Patriots up on that offer.  Why, then, did the Patriots offer 21-year old rookie Drake Maye from UNC almost $60 million ($36 million over 4 years plus $24 million signing bonus)?  The answer is obvious: He and I are not the same by a long shot.  No one would reasonably expect our wages to equalize (mine rise and his to fall).  The theorem doesn’t hold in this case.

Factor price equalization will more likely occur between very similar trading partners like the US and Canada: the technology is similar, there are lower costs to relocating, and workers are similar.  But factor price equalization will not occur as a matter of course from trade, as Lind seems to think.  In fact, just the opposite could just as easily occur.  Factor price equalization is a special case, not a general case, of trade.

 

P.S. In an article forthcoming in the Review of Economics and Statistics (ungated version here), Aaron Flaaten and Justin Piece of the Federal Reserve found that Trump’s tariffs resulted in “relative reduction in manufacturing employment.”  Depending on details, this reduction in demand could likely have led to a net relative reduction in wages too.  This would suggest that protectionism, not trade, is the bigger threat to American wages.

 


Jon Murphy is an assistant professor of economics at Nicholls State University.

READER COMMENTS

Thomas L Hutcheson
Oct 3 2024 at 1:19pm

[Thanks for the shout out to my not quite Professor Stolper.  He was a Professor at U Michigan and researcher at the Center for Research on Economic Development when I was there 1968-71.  Wonderful guy although I never had an actual class from him.]

Unfortunately I find Murphy’s defense of freer trade (a position I strongly agree with) to be almost as weak as Lind’s attack.  I do not think it is wrong to conclude that ceteris paribus an increase in trade (not, BTW,  _just_ a reduction in tariffs or administrative obstacles to trade can shift the relative price of some of the factors of production including some kinds of the extremely heterogeneous “labor.”)  I would not agree that such a possible shift is an argument against removing obstacles to trade.

Lind would be on stronger grounds for critiquing “neoliberal”* economic policies if he directed his fire at fiscal deficits that require the Fed to have higher interest rates in order to maintain a policy of Flexible Average Inflation Targeting and thereby attracting foreign capital which drives up the value of the dollar, stimulating imports and discouraging exports.

The proper compliment to an increase in trade is to remove other obstacles to growth as well as including monetary policy ensuring income-maximizing inflation.

* Personally I never considered the Regan-GWBush-Trump policies of reducing taxes and increasing deficits to _be_ a part of “neoliberalism,” but what happened happened.

Jon Murphy
Oct 4 2024 at 12:13pm

Just to be clear, I am not defending free trade in this blog post.  I’m working on a book-legnth treatment on the case for free trade with Don Boudreaux that will get into a defense of free trade.  This blog post is a refutation of Lind’s claim.

Warren Platts
Oct 7 2024 at 3:10pm

I do not think it is wrong to conclude that ceteris paribus an increase in trade … can shift the relative price of some of the factors of production including some kinds of the extremely heterogeneous “labor.”

That’s a good point. Stolper and Samuelson do make the simplifying assumption that watchmakers can seamlessly shift into the wheat-growing sector despite the fact that good watchmakers don’t necessarily make good wheat growers. But the goal was to focus on the first order effects of trade that affect the labor force as a whole.

Lind would be on stronger grounds for critiquing “neoliberal” economic policies if he directed his fire at fiscal deficits that require … attracting foreign capital which drives up the value of the dollar, stimulating imports and discouraging exports.

This, however, is not so simple. Recall the rare fiscal surpluses in the latter years of the Clinton administration: the trade deficit continued to balloon. If the government won’t accept foreign capital, the private sector will in the form subprime mortgage derivatives and such. In other words, excess savings in the mercantilist countries causes negative savings (debt) in the deficit countries.

Fiscal Conservatives Should Care About Trade Deficits

Warren Platts
Oct 3 2024 at 1:50pm

Uh, there’s a reason the guys on Wall Street refer to “free trade” as “labor arbitrage.”

Jon Murphy
Oct 3 2024 at 2:21pm

Be weary of appealing to such platitudes as opposed to looking at how actual people make actual decisions.  Such “decision rules” often lead to ruin.

It is indeed true that there can be labor arbitrage under certain circumstances, as I have stated.  But far, far more ships have been wrecked on those rocks seeking supposedly easy profit than those who have successfully navigated.

 

David Seltzer
Oct 3 2024 at 3:17pm

Warren: I managed a hedge fund on Wall street. I don’t recall hearing “labor arbitrage.” Which guys to whom are you referring? The term arbitrage is the risk free trade of identical assets in different markets to exploit price differences. Those opportunities rarely occurred and were quickly traded. Trading in efficient free markets is essentially no-arb. The most successful traders seldom exceeded zero alpha and returns were adjusted for risk. A the return on a market beta of one was 10%. A beta of two yielded a portfolio return of 20%.

Jon Murphy
Oct 3 2024 at 3:50pm

Which guys to whom are you referring?

I’ve only seen the term used in pop finance situations.

Craig
Oct 3 2024 at 8:22pm

Cross-promotional, deal mechanics, revenue stream, jargon….synergy….

30 Rock Bit where Liz wants to go to Miami and Jack, Alec Baldwin agrees but he wants to go to Boston so they go to Boston in the middle of winter. I found that clip funny, but yeah, the corporate speak changes, I can throw in there now some disruption too, I suppose. Offshoring acquired a kind of pejorative and the term labor arbitrage does pop up relatively frequently. It takes on another meaning as well with respect to remote workers essentially doing the opposite, taking their big city wage and living out in lower cost of living areas. I have seen that referred to as labor arbitrage though I personally call it ‘remote arbitrage’ among my cabal of newly vinted Vols.

 

Warren Platts
Oct 4 2024 at 5:07pm

I don’t recall hearing “labor arbitrage.” Which guys to whom are you referring?

It’s a common appellation, but also right in the Lind article that Jon is responding to:

In reality, post-Cold War offshoring was driven by corporate labor arbitrage, enabled by the pools of exploitable low-wage labor that China and other countries like Vietnam and Mexico offered to unpatriotic American corporations seeking to evade unions and minimize labor costs.

Jon Murphy
Oct 4 2024 at 5:44pm

Exactly. It’s like “trickle down economics.” A phrase loved by pundits, but has no empirical or practical use.

David Seltzer
Oct 5 2024 at 11:45am

Warren: You still haven’t named the wall street guys. Secondly. I never or any of our traders in 30 years on Wall Street made a “labor arbitrage” trade. Common appellation? Where are you getting this from?

Warren Platts
Oct 5 2024 at 1:06pm

Chris Arnade, a guy I talk to on twitter, who failed at theoretical physics, but became a Wall Street quant where he made millions, and also author of the best-selling book Dignity said so:

The policy class, and to be overly simplified, what I would call the libertarian/free-market/neo-libs, which has focused on growth alone, without worry about externalities, and the costs. Free trade, or as we called it on wall street, labor arbitrage was a big mistake.

(Chris keeps his X account locked, so you might not find the above quote if you search for it.) As for “labor arbitrage” being a common epithet for free trade (and mass immigration), I see that according to the Google ngram viewer, it didn’t enter common parlance until after the 2000 China Shock started.

Ahmed Fares
Oct 3 2024 at 4:33pm

Assuming I am correct that he is pulling off the Factor Equalization Theorem, Lind seems to be seizing on it, imparting to it certain claims no one actually holds, and claiming these as free-trade dogmas.  The problem is that the theorem hasn’t held up well to empirical scrutiny.  The assumptions in it are too strong.  In particular, the theorem requires that labor across the trading partners is virtually identical (the same with capital).  In reality, labor is not identical across many trading partners.

In the interest of clarity, a couple of quotes with the same idea:

The Heckscher–Ohlin theorem is one of the four critical theorems of the Heckscher–Ohlin model, developed by Swedish economist Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin (his student). In the two-factor case, it states: “A capital-abundant country will export the capital-intensive good, while the labor-abundant country will export the labor-intensive good.”

The Leontief paradox, presented by Wassily Leontief in 1951, found that the U.S. (the most capital-abundant country in the world by any criterion) exported labor-intensive commodities and imported capital-intensive commodities, in apparent contradiction with the Heckscher–Ohlin theorem. However, if labor is separated into two distinct factors, skilled labor and unskilled labor, the Heckscher–Ohlin theorem is more accurate. The U.S. tends to export skilled-labor-intensive goods, and tends to import unskilled-labor-intensive goods.

Heckscher–Ohlin theorem

In the US case, “capital-abundant” would mean “human capital abundant” so in that sense, the Heckscher–Ohlin theorem holds.

 

Ahmed Fares
Oct 3 2024 at 4:40pm

Further to my comment, I like the way Arnold Kling treats this issue:

It might make sense to include intangible capital when we measure capital. Moreover, suppose that we count all of “human capital” as capital, so that only the compensation of an unskilled worker is measured as “labor” income. Every increment above that earned by skilled workers and professionals is measured as “capital” income. If an unskilled worker can earn $25,000 a year and a software engineer can earn $200,000, then $175,000 of the software engineer’s income should count as capital income. Thinking this way about the economy as a whole, labor’s share of income is not the 60 percent that you get by putting all of the software engineer’s income (and that of other skilled workers) into “labor” income. Labor’s share would probably be closer to 5 percent.

The Muddle of Labor and Capital

 

john hare
Oct 3 2024 at 6:49pm

Shipbuilding seems to be a field with Americans less productive than foreign competition. https://www.construction-physics.com/p/why-cant-the-us-build-ships

Also mentioned on this blog quite often are the infrastructure projects that America has problems over compared to Europe  and various Asian countries.

I find these failings a bit distressing. Though I don’t want to hold others back. Rather I want us to read our playbooks and show for our own drills.

 

Matthias
Oct 4 2024 at 10:08am

You can blame the Jones Act for holding American shipbuilding back.

John hare
Oct 4 2024 at 4:22pm

Unfortunately, the Jones act is only one ingredient on a problem over a century and a half old.  If the subject matters to you, I would suggest reading the whole article from my link.   Cost of steel was one of the factors that surprised me as well as England being more efficient.

Warren Platts
Oct 4 2024 at 5:03pm

“‘as long as the “winners” compensate the “losers”‘ … Open any trade textbook and you won’t find such dogmas he claims are there.”

Jon you walked into that one! That is in fact standard textbook fare. From the Krugman, Obstfeld & Melitz (2012) International Politics – Theory & Policy (9th Edition, pp. 63-66) (same textbook you routinely cite regarding optimal tariffs):

“Do the gains from trade outweigh the losses? … Could those who gain from trade compensate those who lose and still be better off themselves? If so, then trade is potentially a source of gain to everyone…. it is always possible to redistribute income in such a way that everyone gains from trade…. It is always better to allow trade and compensate those who are hurt by it than to prohibit the trade.”

Of course the flour and sugar so the peasants can eat their cake never flows. But what’s worse is the insinuation that there are necessarily net gains in the first place. As Samuelson proved in his 1972 “Little Nobel Lecture,” there are not always net gains from free trade. See also Samuelson’s 2004 “Where Ricardo and Mill Rebut and Confirm Arguments of Mainstream Economists Supporting Globalization.” Combine that with the very unusual, forever persisting trade deficit that USA suffers from, it’s clear that so-called “free trade” actually causes a headwind to overall U.S. economic growth. Hence Lind’s screed…

Jon Murphy
Oct 4 2024 at 5:41pm

Please don’t cherry pick quotes. The whole quote matters. You cut out the vital bits.

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 9:50am

I will say that you are correct in that I punted on Lind’s misunderstanding of the welfare question as well.  What Lind is referring to is called Kaldor-Hicks (K-H) Efficiency.  Just like his misunderstanding of Factor Equalization Theorem, he misconstrues a fairly technical method of evaluation and construes it as a “dogma.”  For the sake of space in this post, I punted on that issue; I wanted to focus on his more egregious mistake.  Perhaps in the future, I’ll write a post on his misunderstanding of K-H, but time is always tight during the semester.

I will say this: K-H is just one way of evaluating outcomes.  The three pages you cite (which actually go all the way up to 9 in the 11th edition) discuss the pros and cons of various evaluation methods.  And there are other economists who reject wholeheartedly welfare economics at all.  It’s not a “dogma” as Lind claims, and your citation proves it.

Warren Platts
Oct 5 2024 at 5:11pm

It’s not a “dogma” as Lind claims, and your citation proves it.

It doesn’t matter if you want to call it a “dogma” or an “idea” or a “disease” but the mainstream, Anglo-American economic doctrine that, as Krugman says, “It is always better to allow trade and compensate those who are hurt by it than to prohibit the trade” certainly is widespread textbook fodder. Indeed it appears in the Stolper & Samuelson (1941) paper you cite:

“CONCLUSION: We have shown that there is a grain of truth in the pauper labour type of argument for protection…. [However, w]e are anxious to point out that even in the two factor case our argument provides no political ammunition for the protectionist. For if effects on the terms of trade can be disregarded, it has been shown that the harm which free trade inflicts upon- one factor of production is necessarily less than the gain to the other. Hence, it is always possible to bribe the suffering factor by subsidy or other redistributive devices so as to leave all factors better off as a result of trade.” (my emphasis)

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 6:42pm

It doesn’t matter if you want to call it a “dogma” or an “idea” or a “disease”

It does. Those are three different words that mean three very different things. They’re not interchangeable.

Warren Platts
Oct 6 2024 at 12:35pm

For our purposes, logically, ‘dogma’, ‘idea’, ‘proposition’, ‘God-given, scientifically proven truth’ are the same just as the words ‘and’, ‘but’, ‘however’, ‘moreover’, ‘nonetheless’, ‘also’ are also all logically exactly the same. To be sure, ‘dogma’ carries with it the connotation that it refers to a long-established truism that may or may not be true or, certainly  in Lind’s usage, ought to be rejected. But merely asserting that p is a dogma is not in itself dispositive that the dogma is false or should be rejected. That’s the important discussion. The labels we choose to apply are mere advertising.

Jon Murphy
Oct 6 2024 at 7:03pm

For our purposes, logically, ‘dogma’, ‘idea’, ‘proposition’, ‘God-given, scientifically proven truth’ are the same just as the words ‘and’, ‘but’, ‘however’, ‘moreover’, ‘nonetheless’, ‘also’ are also all logically exactly the same.

I am aware that, for your purposes, you are using such inappropriate subsitutions.  Muddled writing indicates muddled thinking.

Mactoul
Oct 4 2024 at 11:22pm

If the Factor Equalization theorem assumes that labor is identical in both trading countries, then why are wages in country A higher than wages in country B?

Because you are taking this fact that wages in America are greater than wages in China as the evidence that the labor is not identical. And thus the theorem cannot apply.

It is very confusing. The theorem begins with wage difference between two trading countries but you are saying that the wage difference implies that the theorem cannot apply.

Jon Murphy
Oct 4 2024 at 11:44pm

If the Factor Equalization theorem assumes that labor is identical in both trading countries, then why are wages in country A higher than wages in country B?

Because one country is relatively Labor abundant and the other is relatively labor scarce. Just supply and demand.

Because you are taking this fact that wages in America are greater than wages in China as the evidence that the labor is not identical. And thus the theorem cannot apply.

No, sir. Read my post more carefully. I’m looking at productivity numbers, not wages.

Craig
Oct 5 2024 at 1:21pm

“Because one country is relatively Labor abundant and the other is relatively labor scarce. Just supply and demand.”

Yeah makes sense for sure. But wait? Aren’t wages supposed to be linked to productivity? With resoect to autos this frustrates many because one sees VW Puebla [I  believe it is largest auto plant in NA] where workers are still fighting cholera vs VW Chattanooga where workers are fighting for and getting $40/hr. Why? Why is it that after generations now workers in Puebla are still impoverished, thougjmh still making world class products sold globally, while VW can open a plant in an area with no historical connection to the auto industry. Honestly I find the wage discrepancy a bit unseemly at this point.

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 3:41pm

Aren’t wages supposed to be linked to productivity?

Marginal productivity, yes.

I’m not quite sure what you’re asking in the rest of your comment, though.

Warren Platts
Oct 5 2024 at 3:51pm

Aren’t wages supposed to be linked to productivity?

Wages are related to country’s overall productivity, what Jon here is trying to measure with GDP/worker. This is why an identical haircut in San Diego is much more expensive than one in Tijuana.  This is sometimes referred to as Baumol’s “Cost Disease.” The problem is strawberry pickers making $2/hour are happy to bid down wages at the Puebla auto plant.

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 4:53pm

You’re right.  Baumol is another reason I could have pointed to as to why Lind is wrong.  But rather I wanted to focus primarily on what I think was his argument (although you, Warren, seem to think he was making a different one, about this “labor arbitrage,” whatever that means).

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 4:54pm

The problem is strawberry pickers making $2/hour are happy to bid down wages at the Puebla auto plant.

The Baumol Cost Disease predicts the opposite…

Ahmed Fares
Oct 5 2024 at 3:06pm

re: an example of corporate labor arbitrage

I’m responding to a bunch of comments above stating that labor arbitrage rarely if ever happens.

In a comment I made on another econlib article, I said that capital-labor substitution is actually labor-labor labor substitution when you consider that capital is stored labor. I gave the example of Musk building Teslas in Texas using German-manufactured KUKA robots, which embed German labor, to replace US workers. Here, Musk is buying labor in the German market where it is relatively cheap, and selling that labor in the US market.

This is the definition of arbitrage.

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 3:42pm

Well, sure.  If one redefines terms, then one can make anything mean anything.

Warren Platts
Oct 5 2024 at 4:14pm

You guys are way overthinking this. When people toss around the description “labor arbitrage,” they are using the word ‘arbitrage’ in a loose sense simply meaning the same as ‘making a profit off a price difference’. Because of course the entire point of offshoring a factory to a place like China or Bangladesh (or restaffing a home factory with immigrants from the poorest country in the Western Hemisphere) is to reduce labor costs, thus increasing profits to owners whilst lowering prices for consumers…

Jon Murphy
Oct 5 2024 at 4:47pm

Because of course the entire point of offshoring a factory to a place like China or Bangladesh (or restaffing a home factory with immigrants from the poorest country in the Western Hemisphere) is to reduce labor costs, thus increasing profits to owners whilst lowering prices for consumers…

And that’s why “labor arbitrage” is a pop finance concept and not an actual thing.  Workers are not all interchangable.  Productivity is what determines wage (as you rightfully point out above).  One cannot just relocate a factory overseas or just hire the cheapest person out there.  That is a recipe for failure.  Productivity matters.

Ahmed Fares
Oct 5 2024 at 7:45pm

The focus on productivity is misleading because it leads to the belief that increasing productivity increases trade competitiveness. In fact, this does not happen.

A related perception is the common belief that countries have to be strong and competitive to stand up against competition from foreign countries. The perception is that if foreign countries improve their institutions and thus increase their productivity, it will become difficult to trade with and compete against these countries. The metaphor of this point of view is the corporation: A country is like a big corporation competing on the global market. This leads to the opinion that “(…) the United States and Japan are competitors in the same sense that Coca-Cola competes with Pepsi.” (Krugman, 1994, p. 29). If Coca-Cola becomes more successful, this tends to be to Pepsi’s detriment. The same is, so the argument, true for countries. Also, many people worry that if foreign countries pay low wages for their labour, this makes it difficult for “us” to compete with “them” on global markets. Some may even argue that it is not only difficult for us to compete, but it is also unfair that they compete against us by paying those unfairly low wages. What is the answer to these worries and stressful point of views about the world economy?

These perspectives are inconsistent with the Ricardian trade theory. Both of them disregard the fact that wages—and factor prices more generally—are endogenous and thus reflect the average productivities of countries. If the foreign country raises its productivity, this does not imply that its firms become internationally more competitive. Wages will rise accordingly, maybe not immediately, but they will. And this is not only a theoretical implication. As shown in Fig. 5.3 above, it is reasonable to assume that this happens in practice. Thereby, the unit costs of foreign production may not change at all. Of course, foreigners will be happy about the productivity increase as it raises their wages. But it does generally not increase their firms’ international competitiveness.

—200 Years of Ricardian Trade Theory: Challenges of Globalization

The focus should be on unit labor costs because these account for both productivity and labor costs.

Jon Murphy
Oct 6 2024 at 8:33am

The focus on productivity is misleading because it leads to the belief that increasing productivity increases trade competitiveness. In fact, this does not happen.

Yes, it does.  The evidence is crystal clear that it does happen.  I don’t understand how you can say it doesn’t.  Comparative advantage proves it mathematically, and the empirical evidence is overwhelming.

Ahmed Fares
Oct 6 2024 at 3:42pm

I don’t understand how you can say…

I didn’t say, the guys in the quote said. I happen to agree with them, and the second paragraph in the quote makes it crystal clear why that is so. My quote was from a Google book search, which is why I didn’t provide a link. Here’s a link to the book with author’s names included:

200 Years of Ricardian Trade Theory: Challenges of Globalization

Suppose you’re in the business of manufacturing toasters and your productivity doubles while your labor costs triple. Your unit labor costs just went up 50%, and now you’re out of the toaster business.

e.g.

Worker paid $20/hr makes 1 toaster in an hour. ULC = $20

Worker paid $60/hr makes 2 toasters in an hour. ULC = $30

 

Jon Murphy
Oct 6 2024 at 7:01pm

But that’s a case where productivity falls

Warren Platts
Oct 7 2024 at 2:40pm

More definitions! But if one defines labor productivity in units of value-added per hour (where value-added = quantity times price) then the higher paid worker is twice as productive. For example, if the price of toasters is $40, then the higher paid worker is twice as productive at $80/hour.
 
Even if the price of toasters was $25, the higher paid workers are still twice as productive at $50/hour; the toasters they make still count as contributions to GDP even if the company is losing money.
 
Note, however, that even if the firm is profitable, it’s in the interests of the shareholders and managers to offshore production to the less productive workers. The home workers lose their jobs, but the owners get more profit through hiring less productive foreign workers. If the world price is same as the home price, for consumers it’s a wash.

Jim Glass
Oct 7 2024 at 7:08pm

Warren Platts wrote:

even if the firm is profitable, it’s in the interests of the shareholders and managers to offshore production to the less productive workers. The home workers lose their jobs, but the owners get more profit through hiring less productive foreign workers.

Which is why US manufacturers moved their operations en masse to Haiti decades ago.

Warren Platts
Oct 7 2024 at 9:10pm

Haiti used to be the world’s biggest producer of baseballs, among other things. They have had bad luck lately, to be sure….

https://canada-haiti.ca/content/production-baseballs-haiti-and-us-imperialism

Jim Glass
Oct 7 2024 at 10:29pm

I don’t understand how you can say [increasing productivity doesn’t increase trade competitiveness]

I didn’t say, the guys in the quote said. I happen to agree with them, and the second paragraph in the quote makes it crystal clear why that is so.

Which paragraph states that if a nation increases its productivity of capital, then its labor productivity may decline by an offsetting amount due to an increase of wages, “Wages will rise accordingly, maybe not immediately, but they will….”

“Thereby, the unit costs of foreign production may not change at all.”

Yes indeed. And with no change at all in unit costs, there is no change in productivity. That’s sort of a “duh” level insight.

The productivity that matters for trade competitiveness (as well as in Coke v Pepsi price battles) is total factor productivity = output / all combined inputs, with “all” certainly including labor. Which determines the unit cost, which determines the result for trade. Yet for some strange reason you are defining productivity by omitting cost of labor from it. Why do such an odd thing?

You certainly didn’t get this idea from Ricardo, who totally included cost of labor in his trade calculations. (He underplayed productivity of capital.)

“These perspectives are inconsistent with the Ricardian trade theory.”

Sure enough, they are. Change the definitions used by Ricardo and the rest of the world and you’ll predict results different from those that Ricardo and the rest of the world actually get.  One of these definitions is that “increasing (reducing) productivity” = “producing more from less (less from more.)”  So if your cost of making toasters is going up you are making less from more and your productivity at making toasters is going down. Period.

Ahmed Fares
Oct 7 2024 at 11:26pm

Yet for some strange reason you are defining productivity by omitting cost of labor from it. Why do such an odd thing?

The following link is from the Bank of Canada defining productivity. See if you can find any mention of labor costs in the article. I’ll wait.

Understanding productivity

 

Warren Platts
Oct 8 2024 at 9:16am

That’s right. Labor costs do not figure into productivity, which is Production per hour. And:

Production = Wages + Profit

So even in the above example, the guy making $60/hour is still twice as productive as the guy making $20/hour. The equation holds because from $60 of wages is subtracted $10 of negative profit, so production is still $50 / hour

Warren Platts
Oct 6 2024 at 4:42pm

The problem is that the theorem hasn’t held up well to empirical scrutiny. The assumptions in it are too strong. In particular, the theorem requires that labor across the trading partners is virtually identical (the same with capital). In reality, labor is not identical across many trading partners.

Jon, this is where your analysis completely breaks down. The assumption of Stolper-Samuelson (1941) is two countries, one of which is labor scarce but capital rich. What counts is the capital/labor ratio. If the capital/labor ratio is high, the workers are more productive with higher real wages compared to the other country with the reverse pattern. In other words, the laborers are not the same across countries and there is certainly no requirement in the theory that they be the same. What the Stolper/Samuelson theorem entails is that when free trade is opened between the two countries, real wages for the scarce labor country will decline. In their example, “wheat” has an especially high capital/labor ratio compared to labor intensive “watches.”
 
Hence as workers and capital moves to wheat production in order to export wheat and import watches, the increase in labor devoted to wheat is not matched by an equivalent increase in capital. Therefore, labor productivity actually decreases and hence so do real wages. In principle, however, the gains to the owners of capital will see increased returns from free trade that will outweigh the losses to labor (and if they wanted, the “winners” could compensate the “losers”).
 
Empirically, this is the pattern we see in USA due to globalism: as predicted, labor’s share of the national income has gone down, working class real wages have stagnated or gone down (e.g., black males), income and wealth inequality has increased, and US manufacturing labor productivity has pretty much stagnated or gone down in the aftermath of the China Shock. There have even been some hamfisted attempts at “compensation.” Meantime, working class real wages in China have increased dramatically.
 
Note, however, that Lind’s case for tariffs doesn’t hinge on the Stolper-Samuelson theorem, at least not directly, but that’s another story…

Jon Murphy
Oct 6 2024 at 7:02pm

Jon, this is where your analysis completely breaks down.

No, it’s the stated assumption in Stolper-Samuelson and has been the main critisism of the piece since it was written.

Warren Platts
Oct 7 2024 at 2:21pm

No, it’s the stated assumption [that labor across the trading partners is virtually identical] in Stolper-Samuelson

I guess that depends on one’s personal definition of “identical,” but it’s a pretty loose definition that considers labor of differing productivities and hence differing real wages across countries (and within the same country across time) to be “identical.”

and has been the main criticism of the piece since it was written.

I would ask for a citation, except that there are none that exist. Indeed, Jon, that’s what makes your insight so original!

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