Does purchase of imports necessarily imply that we must export?
On March 21, 2025, economist Don Boudreaux quoted, on Café Hayek, the following passage from a chapter written by Veronique de Rugy.
Here it is:
One of the biggest fallacies about trade is that the ultimate value of trade for a country is found in that country’s exports, with imports being valuable only insofar as they better enable the country to export. But in reality, the opposite is true: Imports are the end and exports are the means. If we could acquire imports without exporting anything, that would be the best of all worlds for us. Unfortunately, foreigners won’t work for us for free. They want things in return for what they produce for us, and so we must export.
It’s clear from context that Don agrees with Vero.
I rarely disagree with Don or Vero about trade. But I do here.
Start with the part I don’t disagree with, the first sentence:
One of the biggest fallacies about trade is that the ultimate value of trade for a country is found in that country’s exports, with imports being valuable only insofar as they better enable the country to export.
That is spot on and well said.
It’s the rest that I mainly disagree with. Let’s consider it sentence by sentence.
But in reality, the opposite is true: Imports are the end and exports are the means.
There are two ends: imports and exports. We want imports: that’s one end. But our exporters want to export: that’s their end.
If we could acquire imports without exporting anything, that would be the best of all worlds for us.
It’s not clear that if we could get imports without exports, that would be the best of all possible worlds. In particular, potential exporters wouldn’t like it because they would like to make money by exporting. Also, what if the alternative to exports is a huge foreign investment in our country? That could be good. More on that anon.
Unfortunately, foreigners won’t work for us for free.
I agree.
They want things in return for what they produce for us, and so we must export.
It’s true that they want “things in return for what they produce for us.” But it doesn’t follow that we must export. It is true that one way they get money to buy things from us is by our importing, and that they take much of the money from selling those imports to us (which are exports from their point of view) and buy our exports.
But imagine that we spend a lot on imports. Do we have to sell exports? No. What if there are huge investment opportunities in the United States, not just in buying U.S. federal government bonds but also investing in Apple, Microsoft, Meta, etc.? And what if, as is true, there is a world demand to hold U.S. dollars? Then exporters in other countries could take the money they earned on exporting to us and invest it in the United States or hold it as dollars. So although there is a strong empirical connection between exports and imports, there is no necessary connection. Indeed, our large current account deficit and large capital account surplus are evidence of that.
The one case in which Vero would be right is if no one in any country invested anything in any other country. But that’s not the world we live in.
READER COMMENTS
Alan Goldhammer
Mar 24 2025 at 9:12am
Occam’s Razor answer: the biggest value of international trade is access to products that are either not manufactured in one’s country or far better than those that are.
Personal example: we needed a new 24 inch wide washer & dryer that would replace an aging US manufactured unit in the Condo we were moving into three years ago. The best units are made by German firms Bosch and Miele. The Bosch units were slightly less expensive and “in stock.” This was November 2021 when the international supply chains had not fully recovered. The dryer was delivered as promised but the washer did not arrive for another 70 days.
Andrew_FL
Mar 24 2025 at 9:38am
I notice-I think Bob Murphy has noticed this, too-that there is a tendency to speak as though we trade exports for imports directly. But we don’t-if we did, a trade deficit would not only not be a problem, it would be a logical impossibility. We export goods for money and we import goods by paying with money. That we pay more money than we receive in turn does not imply we are getting something for free (in fact stated directly this is rather clear!).
Student
Mar 24 2025 at 9:52am
Excellent points.
One important typo tho:
”Indeed, our large current account deficit and large current account surplus are evidence of that.”
… and large capital account surplus are evidence of that.
David Henderson
Mar 24 2025 at 10:29am
Good catch. Thanks. Correction made.
William Busby
Mar 24 2025 at 10:09am
So, in the long run, when imports significantly exceed exports,assets in our country are all owned by foreigners. Isn’t that a national security risk.
Dylan
Mar 24 2025 at 11:29am
I think I disagree with your disagreement. Although it is probably just semantics.
But, why do exporters want to make money? Isn’t it to buy goods and services, which in our counterfactual are all being provided by the importer in exchange for nothing? In which case money would have no value?
Aren’t those all exports? Anything of value that a foreigner gets in exchange for a product or service they provide us is an export. It may not be included in the trade stats, but I think that is more a problem with the measurement.
David Henderson
Mar 24 2025 at 11:50am
You ask:
They want money to buy goods and services. On that you’re correct. But they spend only a tiny percent of their earnings on imports.
You ask:
No. I might have been a little sloppy because one could argue that the dollars they hold onto (which are a tiny % of the capital they invest in) are exports. But the rest are not.
You write:
If that were true, there would be no such thing as a capital account.
Pierre Lemieux
Mar 24 2025 at 12:00pm
David: I agree with the important point you are making but I would formulate it differently. “We” do not export in order to import. Some individuals or private organizations export because they want to export, and others import because they want to import–a good illustration of the confusion created by the collective “we.” In other words, and notwithstanding the convenient argument we owe to James Mill (repeated by John Stuart), it is not true that some export because others want to import or even in general because they themselves want to import (except perhaps for black-market transactions to evade foreign exchange controls). The argument you criticize is only valid when used as a way to show the antinomy in the collectivist protectionists’ argument.
Thus, even “if no one in any country invested anything in any other country,” it would still not be true that “we” export in order that “we” import.
steve
Mar 24 2025 at 2:21pm
I sometimes think you overdo the “we” thing but in this case I think it is incredibly important and really turned on a light bulb for me. Unfortunately, as I get older the wattage gets lower but I hope to be able to pass this idea on. Thank you.
Steve
Pierre Lemieux
Mar 24 2025 at 3:59pm
Thanks for these very nice words, Steve. I would say (including for myself, of course, since I am certainly older than you are and I don’t have as much wattage as many others in this conversation) that it’s preferable to have low wattage but a lightbulb that clicks on and spreads some light, than high wattage and a lightbulb that’s off.
Craig
Mar 24 2025 at 8:19pm
I ain’t as good as I once was but I’m as good once as I ever was. Toby Keith (things one learns in TN)
Don Boudreaux
Mar 24 2025 at 12:53pm
I, not surprisingly, disagree with David on this issue. (A rare and uncomfortable sensation!)
One preliminary issue – highlighted by Pierre’s comment – is that speaking in terms of countries trading creates a fundamental misimpression. Countries don’t trade; only individuals trade (although they often do so in groups called “firms”). In my ideal world, we would never talk or write with this collectivist misapprehension. But my ideal world isn’t in the cards; for the foreseeable future, people will continue to talk of countries as trading with each other. We’re stuck with this confusing short-hand.
Now to the core issue. Vero’s point – with which I fully agree – is simply that producing and selling is a means while consumption is the end. That’s all that is meant when someone says or writes in this context that exports are a means and imports are an end. And I don’t see how this claim can be sensibly denied.
Each individual that sells something does so not because that action in and of itself yields utility; that action is not the ‘end’ of the economic plan. The end of the economic plan that gave rise to the act of production and sale is what that individual expects to receive in return – that is, what that person buys, or what that person imports.
It’s true that the individual exporter – call him Smith – might have no interest in importing. Doesn’t matter. Smith gets paid in money that he will ultimately spend on consumption goods or services. Even though every consumption item Smith purchases is purchased from a fellow citizen, Smith’s act of exporting was not an end; it was a means.
Continuing on: Because Smith (by assumption here) wants to purchase nothing from foreigners, he’s willing to export only because he’s confident that one or more fellow citizens wants to purchase something from foreigners. Smith exports and then exchanges his foreign-exchange earnings for dollars. (Assume that Smith resides in America.) But the only reason anyone gave Smith dollars for foreign exchange is because that person wants to import. This person – call her Williams – produced and sold something to obtain dollars and, upon exchanging those dollars for foreign exchange, spent that foreign exchange on imports.
Although in the foreign transactions here the exporter is a different person than the importer, it remains the case that the export is a means that made possible the attainment of the end – that is, the imports.
…..
What individual would not like to have the opportunity to acquire what he or she acquires in the market at lower prices? I think that such a person doesn’t exist. So how much lower the prices? Well, down to zero.
Here’s how we can be sure that exports are a means and not an end: No one would export unless he or she is paid to export. Here’s how we can be sure that imports are an end and not a means: People pay to import and do not have to be paid to import. This reality is all that Vero means, and it’s all that is meant by Milton Friedman and the countless other economists – including me – who’ve said and say the same thing.
David is correct that means such as work effort, selling, and exporting have value. But they are valuable only as means; more precisely, their value is imputed back to them – and exists – only from the ends that these means achieve.
Jones sells in order to buy. Selling is the means, acquiring what is bought is the end. This fact doesn’t change if the party to whom Jones sells or the party from whom Jones buys is in a foreign country.
Don Boudreaux
Mar 24 2025 at 1:40pm
Let me take another shot at defending Vero’s (and my – and Milton Friedman’s) position, this time in a less verbose and rambling way.
If we exclude goods and services sent abroad as gifts or as weapons of war, all exporting is done with the intention of receiving something in exchange. That is, exports are a means.
It could be that the same American individual – Smith – sells (say) $1,000 of cloth to foreigners with the plan of Smith himself using the proceeds of those sales to purchase $1,000 worth of wine from foreigners. In this example, it’s easy to see that exports are a means and imports are the end. Surely everyone agrees that Smith would be made better off if the foreign vintner decided not to charge Smith for the wine.
Surely everyone would agree that Smith would be made worse off if the foreign vintner raised the price of his wine from $1,000 to something higher. If you agree, then it should be clear that the end for Smith is the imported wine while the means of attaining this end is the exported cloth.
Now suppose Smith sells $1,000 of cloth to foreigners and uses the proceeds to invest abroad. Clearly Smith is hoping that his $1,000 investment will grow to have higher value. But this can mean that he personally hopes to purchase more than $1,000 of imports in the future. Exports are the means; imports are the end. Or perhaps he’ll still only want in the future to buy only $1,000 of foreign wine. What will he do with the remainder of his investment gains? Suppose he brings all of these gains back to the U.S. They are of value to him only if he can convert them into U.S. dollars – but the buyers of Smith’s U.S. dollars will use the foreign currency they get from Smith to buy imports either currently or, through investing, in the future.
But what if Smith wants nothing from foreigners? He nevertheless sells $1,000 of cloth to foreigners. If the transaction is in dollars, foreigners acquired those dollars only by selling something in the past to Americans. Those past American imports were the ‘end’ of their purchasers. We can then reckon the series of transactions as Americans in the past successfully pursuing their end of importing, which was made possible only because foreigners knew that they could spend those dollars buying exports from America. Smith’s American exports are here correctly reckoned as the means that allowed other Americans to import.
If instead the transaction is in, say, euros, Smith – who wants nothing from Europe – exchanges his $1,000 worth of euros for $1,000, which he spends in the U.S. But he’s able to convert his euros into dollars only because some other Americans want to import from Europe. And, again, the imports can be immediate (as they say, “on the current account”) or they can be in the future (investing in Europe today in the hopes of having even more euros to spend on consumption goods in the future).
The bottom line is that Vero is correct because – again, barring gifting – exports are sent abroad with the expectation of receiving something in exchange. Exports are indisputably a means. Whatever it is that’s expected in exchange is the end. And when we’re talking about international trade, that which is expected in exchange is imports – either immediately or, after foreign investments mature or are cashed out, in the future. Imports are indisputably the end. (By the way, this conclusion isn’t changed if the imports in question are inputs used in production.)
Scott Sumner
Mar 24 2025 at 5:35pm
Very good explanation.
Student
Mar 24 2025 at 7:05pm
While its true that many households and individuals import goods and services to satisfy their consumption needs, isnt it also important to recognize that exports can be an end goal in themselves? For instance, individuals like (name your super rich guy) may export goods and services to accumulate wealth, invest in foreign assets, or finance domestic investments.
Point is… the Capital Account plays a crucial role in facilitating international investment and financial transactions, which can influence trade decisions and outcomes.
At risk of sounding ignorant in a field I am but a “student”… it does seem more accurate to say that both imports and exports can be end goals, depending on the specific circumstances and motivations of the individuals or firms involved.
Craig
Mar 24 2025 at 2:15pm
Just curious, if a foreigner visits do the expenditures of tourists count as exports? Tuition paid for education services? Physical real estate?
robc
Mar 24 2025 at 2:42pm
In the early 90s I used to say that we imported cars and electronics from Japan and exported Manhattan skyscrapers and Hawaiian golf courses to Japan.
So it depends who you talk to. I would be fine with calling those exports, but literalists would disagree
Pierre Lemieux
Mar 24 2025 at 3:20pm
Craig: Clearly yes in the first two cases. Purchases of real estate, however, would count as an inflow of capital.
Charles Robert Anon
Mar 24 2025 at 7:58pm
Would David Henderson and Don Boudreaux be willing to define some rudimentary concepts for us non-economists?
A set of explicit definitions would be a good framework for all of us in the wider audience, and it might make the two sides of this discussion easier to follow.
—
Below are some of the terms/concepts that could benefit from a clear-cut definition.
They’re *very* elementary, but providing a refresher by scribbling a few words for each isn’t necessarily a bad thing, I suppose.
—
Anyway, I have the sense that Henderson’s and Boudreaux’s disagreement expressed here in this article seems relatively minor. Maybe even just a superficial one of definitions or philosophical-ish notions. So being clear about what the central concepts/terms mean could be a straightforward way to settle things.
(Note: I don’t want this to seem like a homework exercise, so I’ve added asterisks to three questions that seem the most germane to me.)
—
(1) What is utility? Are there different kinds of utility — e.g., proximate utility and final utility? Or is utility a simple invariant thing?
(2) What are means and ends? What are intermediate means and ends? What are ultimate ends (or final goods)?
(3) ** How are ends distinguishable from means?
(4) What is the relationship between utility and means and ends?
(5) What is an economic agent? Do agents experience utility?
(6) What is a firm? Is it (necessarily) made up of economic agents? Is it itself an economic agent? Do firms experience utility?
(7) What are national accounts? What relationship to national accounts do economic agents and firms have?
(8) Is money an economic good and/or commodity? If so or if not, how is money different from general economic goods and/or commodities?
(9) What are transactions? Do transactions necessarily involve any particular number of currencies? 0? 1? 2? More? How do transactions affect agents’ levels of utility?
(10) What are imports and exports (I/E)? Are they transactions?
(11) If so, are I/E transactions “virtual” — are they indicated by ledger/database metadata (in national accounts or elsewhere) and compelled by legal expectations? Can I/E’s be strictly “virtual” and not all “real”? Can an import, e.g., be as simple as a database edit and a notional change in ownership of something, whereas no object, nothing physical, actually changes location? And does virtuality affect considerations of utility any at all?
(12) Or, if I/E’s are transactions, must these transactions be “real” — do they have to involve real-world exchanges of goods/commodities? If “real”, do they necessarily require geographical distribution of commodities?
(13) ** What are importers and exporters? Do they include economic agents? Firms? Networks of agents/firms? Manufacturers? Distributors? Warehousers? Wholesalers? Retailers? Brokers? Intermediate consumers? Final consumers? Does “Smith”, e.g., in Boudreaux’s example above, have to be an individual person? Or can “Smith” be one name amongst many on the letterhead of some logistics or agribusiness firm?
(14) ** Do all importers and exporters experience utility and have utility as an end? If there are different kinds of importers/exporters, do they all experience utility? And more or less in the same way? Firms, e.g.? Individual people? Consumers of intermediate goods and consumers of final goods?
Ahmed Fares
Mar 24 2025 at 9:08pm
The US has no need of investment from abroad. As Michael Pettis explains, it just crowds out US domestic savings instead.
Trade Intervention for Freer Trade
Jon Murphy
Mar 25 2025 at 9:19am
Pettis gets numerous basic theoritical points wrong and there are several contradictions just in the quoted bit you shared. He’s really not a reliable source.
Monte
Mar 25 2025 at 11:12am
Could you provide a bit more explanation, Jon? Dismissing his claims as unreliable and contradictory without specifically addressing them comes across as ad hominem. Pettis is, after all, a well-respected economist known for his work on international trade and regarded by many scholars and practitioners to be an authoritative figure in his field. I personally thought the article was rather convincing and well supported by the evidence, but my understanding of the subject matter is admittedly pretty thin.
Jon Murphy
Mar 25 2025 at 11:29am
Is he? I am in his field. I’ve never seen him once taken seriously. (Small point of fact: he is not an economist. His highest degree is an MBA and he teaches finance).
Once I have more time, sure. Under a deadline right now. But I will provide one such example: His opening paragraph. He claims the US has too much savings and then says the problem is the US has too little savings.
Monte
Mar 25 2025 at 1:17pm
Bruegel’s write-up on him suggests he’s rather well-known and influential in this field:
In addition to an MBA, Pettis holds a Masters of International Affairs in Economic Development. This is the background of someone who, IMO, is well qualified to comment on such matters.
In either case, anticipating a more in-depth analysis when time permits.
Ahmed Fares
Mar 25 2025 at 2:49pm
re: Michael Pettis fires a broadside against his critics
The full thread is here:
Michael Pettis thread
Jon Murphy
Mar 26 2025 at 10:28am
He is well-known. He is not influential. Tyler Cowen, in a recent back and forth in the press, points out his arguments are “just abysmally bad and off point.” He routinely makes bad Econ 101 mistakes. Few (if any) scholars take him seriously. He’s probably taken more seriously in the popular mind, but on intellectual grounds, he is very bad.
Kevin Corcoran
Mar 26 2025 at 12:24pm
Adding to this, when he makes his attempts to criticize mainstream economics, he invariably demonstrates that he simply doesn’t understand the views he’s attempting to critique. That is, he repeatedly and consistently fails to give even a minimally accurate description of the views of the economists he’s attempting to criticize. It’s about as bad as creationists when they say “evolutionists believe that life just sprang up out of nowhere due to random chance!” Pettis really is that bad in his attempts to talk about economics.
This reminds me of what Paul Krugman, in his book Peddling Prosperity, said about John Kenneth Galbraith. While Galbraith held a PhD in economics, his work was never taken seriously by academic economists. His work was seen as having little more substance than media punditry and was, in Krugman’s words, “remarkably ill-informed.” Much the same has been said about Stephen Jay Gould in evolution or Richard Rorty in philosophy – to people with no real training in those fields, they seemed like brilliant and heterodox thinkers, but within the field they were seen as intellectual lightweights whose work was mostly nonsense, and only seemed impressive to people who knew very little about those topics.
Of course in economics, evolutionary biology, or philosophy, “people who know every little” about those topics is also “the vast majority of people.” So it’s hardly surprising that someone like Pettis can cultivate a media reputation as a daring and innovative economic thinker, even as he repeatedly demonstrates his inability to even state basic ideas in economics accurately.
Rob Rawlings
Mar 24 2025 at 11:38pm
Great discussion!
The point of all economic activity is to increase consumption of goods and services (either in the present or the future). Both imports and exports are means to that end. It is not even necessarily true that imports are more directly tied to consumption than exports – imports of capital goods used to produce consumer goods for the export market are further away from the consumption stage than exports of goods that directly generates the revenue for subsequent import of consumer goods.
So while I understand what Don means by “Imports are the end and exports are the means” – that we wouldn’t get to consume imported goods if we didn’t sell goods and services to foreigners – I think the statement is an oversimplification and score this one to David.
Joe A.
Mar 25 2025 at 2:18pm
I realize that the discussion is about *International* trade, rather than simply *trade* or commerce. But consider a bottle of wine from Napa. If you buy it from your local store, it’s just a sale from the viewpoint of the store, a purchase from yours, and presumably you bought it to drink it, i.e., consumption. And prof. Boudreaux makes the point he has to work in order to make such a purchase (although he could acquire the needed money in other ways: gifts, dole, etc.). So work is therefore a means to acquire the wine. Translated to the *international* scene, you or he could provide a teaching service outside the U.S. and your emolument would count as an export from the U.S. perspective, but it would still be a means to acquire the wine (and if the bottle came from France, it would presumably still be for your consumption, but it would count as an import into the U.S.
However, consider if the Napa wine bottle were “exported” to Virginia for Boudreaux’s consumption. But does the state of California keep track of such “exports” or the Virginia commonwealth keep track of the “import”? Furthermore, if the Napa wine is shipped to Ontario, Calif., it’s just an intra-state trade, but when sent to Ontario, Canada, it becomes an export/import. Isn’t it still an item for final consumption, for which someone had to work, save or otherwise receive money in order to pay for the purchase? Even if the Canadian buyer borrowed the money, the loan was a means to acquire the wine.
Charley Hooper
Mar 27 2025 at 6:42pm
Producers sell products to customers in other counties for the same reasons they sell them to customers in their own country:
It’s fun and rewarding to develop new products, start companies, etc.
Selling products and services can help others, which is rewarding in itself
Cool products, services, and companies make the world a better place
Selling products and services brings in revenues (generally considered “making money”)
Revenues are usually greater than costs, which means profits are positive (really “making money”)
The distinction between sales to customers inside and outside the seller’s country’s borders is arbitrary. A parallel case can be made for imports: The distinction between purchases from companies inside and outside the purchaser’s country’s borders is arbitrary.
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