Confusions About Comparative Advantage

Oren Cass’s recent Law & Liberty post has been criticized on many fronts.  Co-bloggers David Henderson and Pierre Lemieux, as well as GMU economist Don Boudreaux, have addressed serious theoretical and empirical issues that underlie Cass’s argument.  I will address his discussion of comparative advantage.  Cass does err in his discussion of comparative advantage, but the mistakes he makes are common and even infect some economists’ thinking on trade.  For that reason, while Cass is the motivator for this post, I am writing for all students of economics.

Cass presents comparative advantage as an argument concocted by past economists to justify free trade: countries should trade along comparative advantage patterns.  This assertion about trading patterns, he states, is just blithely accepted by modern economists.  But Cass is mistaken: comparative advantage is empirical. It is an explanation of how and why people actually trade, not how they should trade.  There is substantial evidence supporting comparative advantage’s empirical worth (for example, see here or here).  Economists accept the theory of comparative advantage for the same reason physicists accept the theory of gravity: it survives empirical scrutiny.  Consequently, comparative advantage isn’t some policy that is chosen; to override the patterns of trade that have developed would cause substantial harm.  

Second: no nation has comparative advantage in anything.  Comparative advantage, by definition, exists only at the individual level.  Comparative advantage looks at the differences in opportunity costs among trading partners.  Opportunity cost requires evaluation and choice among alternatives.  Choices and evaluations can be made only by individuals.  For pedagogical reasons, economists often refer to patterns that develop at the national level as a “nation’s” comparative advantage.  But, strictly speaking, this terminological shorthand is not accurate.  

This point about individuals, rather than a nation, choosing is important as it reverses the logic Cass (and many interventionists) employ.  A nation’s “opportunity costs” are not the same as costs at the individual level.  Prices at the individual level can reasonably be interpreted as providing a proxy for the utility an individual gets from the action he takes.  But aggregate costs (individual costs added together) carry no such interpretation.  So, national patterns of trade can provide no useful interpretation that is analogous to individual patterns of trade.  We cannot discuss national opportunity costs, national tradeoffs, in the same manner as individual tradeoffs.  Comparative advantage is something that emerges, not something that is chosen.  I hasten to note: this point does not mean that aggregate costs are devoid of any reasonable interpretation.  Rather, they represent just the tip of the iceberg.  

For example, Cass provides an example of a tradeoff between producing cloth and producing computer chips.  Cass reasons that if a nation is importing chips, it must be specializing in cloth and not producing chips (and vice versa).  Cass asserts that this relationship where a nation produces only one good or another, in turn, reduces a nation’s ability to produce what is imported.  The US, therefore, by importing computer chips, is destroying its ability to produce chips and instead is producing only low value things.

There are two problems here: first, Cass has the relationship switched.  The US is a major producer of computer chips.  The United States is the 6th largest exporter of semiconductors (which include computer chips), which are primarily exported to China, and one of the largest manufacturers in the world.  But the US also imports many computer chips.  The US is one of the largest importers of chips in the world.  This phenomenon, where a nation both imports and exports the same good, is known as intra-industry trade.  If we view comparative advantage through an individualistic lens, the result makes sense.  Individual buyers of chips face a choice: buy domestically or buy internationally.  Depending on the relative costs and benefits, some will buy domestically and others internationally.  Likewise, producers of chips face a similar choice: sell domestically or sell internationally.  Depending on the relative costs and benefits, some will sell domestically and some will sell internationally.  The US, as an accounting unit, both buys from and sells chips to the world. 

This gets us to a similar mistake many people make when considering comparative advantage: specialization.  Comparative advantage tells us that each party in a trade will specialize in the good/service he has a comparative advantage in and trade for the good in which he has a comparative disadvantage.  Many misinterpret this result as implying complete specialization: each party will produce only the good/service he has a comparative advantage in and not produce the good he trades for.  Those who understand comparative advantage make no such claim.  The actual degree of specialization will depend on relative prices.  Relative prices, as discussed above, influence people’s choices.  Thus, one should not expect that trade will destroy, or even necessarily reduce, one’s ability to produce a good/service.

Like many ideas in economics and other sciences, the comparative advantage idea is simple.  But, despite how simple it is, it provides many powerful insights to those who understand it.  Misunderstanding the idea, though, and consequently the theory, can lead to terrible mistakes.  Cass, like many protectionists, fundamentally misunderstands comparative advantage, levies irrelevant and mistaken criticisms, and proposes an alternative that makes little sense.

 


Jon Murphy is an assistant professor of economics at Nicholls State University.

READER COMMENTS

JP
Feb 1 2024 at 3:23pm

Great discussion. Now I have a new reading for my freshmen.

Jon Murphy
Feb 1 2024 at 4:53pm

Thank you!

Don Boudreaux
Feb 1 2024 at 5:39pm

I continue to learn from economists at Nicholls State.

Jon Murphy
Feb 1 2024 at 7:04pm

I’m just doing how you taught me

Jorge Morales Meoqui
Feb 2 2024 at 6:59am

Dear Prof. Murphy:

It would be interesting to hear why you, David Henderson, Pierre Lemieux and Don Boudreaux, did not address the most basic errors in Oren Cass’s post. Firstly, David Ricardo did not formulate the theory of comparative advantage. Secondly, this theory originated from a fundamental misinterpretation of his famous numerical example about the exchange of English cloth and Portuguese wine. Lastly, the concept of comparative advantage played no role in Ricardo’s (and Smith’s) argument for free trade.
Both Smith and Ricardo viewed the relative cheapness of foreign commodities as the basis of international trade.

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 7:31am

Well, I don’t address those three points because, as I (and pretty much everyone else) read Ricardo, they are incorrect:

Ricardo does develop what we go on to call comparative advantage (see his chapter On Foreign Trade in On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation).

Comparative advantage does play a crucial role in his theory of foreign trade (though not for Smith, as you rightfully point out.  Smith used an absolute advanage of trade perspective).

Indeed, you state at the end that comparative advantage is the basis of Ricardo’s thought:

Both Smith and Ricardo viewed the relative cheapness of foreign commodities as the basis of international trade.

 

Jorge Morales Meoqui
Feb 2 2024 at 7:49am

In this case, I am kindly drawing your attention to two publications.
1) The article titled “OVERCOMING ABSOLUTE AND COMPARATIVE ADVANTAGE: A REAPPRAISAL OF THE RELATIVE CHEAPNESS OF FOREIGN COMMODITIES AS THE BASIS OF INTERNATIONAL TRADE” refutes the myth about the contraposition of Smith’s absolute versus Ricardo’s comparative advantage.

2) The article “The Demystification of David Ricardo’s Famous Four Numbers” debunks, among other entrenched myths, that Portugal had a productivity advantage over England.

In reality, there is no basis for the common claim that David Ricardo formulated the theory of comparative advantage.

 

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 8:08am

Thanks, I’ll check them out.  Prima facie, though, I am skeptical that, even if Ricardo got the true figures incorrect, it fundamentally changes anything.  But, reading the abstracts, you disagree.  So, I’ll see what you have to say.

Jorge Morales Meoqui
Feb 4 2024 at 8:22am

Good! I look forward to reading your comments. In the three years since the 2021 paper was published, I have received little feedback from scholars, suggesting they could not find anything substantive to criticize. Otherwise, they would tell me.

In the meantime, could you help me with the following numerical example? Suppose that the four numbers were as follows:

Cloth       Wine

England        100          95

Portugal         90           80

According to the textbook notion of comparative advantage, England would still be interested in importing wine from Portugal and the latter in importing cloth from the former, right?

Jon Murphy
Feb 4 2024 at 9:56am

I have received little feedback from scholars, suggesting they could not find anything substantive to criticize.

Be careful.  That logic does not hold.  It is possible that the readers could not find anything to criticize.  It’s also possible they didn’t find anything worthy in it (to be clear, I am not saying this second possiblity is the case.  I haven’t gotten to the papers yet.  I am just saying it is possible).  There are at least five possibilities why there has been no feedback:

– People have read it and there is nothing to criticize; in short, nothing another party could add

-People have read it and there is nothing of value in the article

-nobody has read the article (though that is unlikely given the stats on the journal’s website)

-People read it but do not understand it and do not want to ask for clarification (for whatever reason)

-No one cares

I do not know which of these 5 apply here (or what the real reason is, if not these 5).  All I am saying is: silence does not imply agreement.

Jorge Morales Meoqui
Feb 4 2024 at 11:43am

“All I am saying is: silence does not imply agreement.”

Thank you for the alert, but I am not sure what triggered the warning. Nowhere did I write or suggest that those who read the 2021 article agreed with its main insights. The fact is that, for whatever reason, most readers decided not to comment on the article.

That came as a surprise because several journal editors had alerted me that the paper made a bold and novel argument that would spur controversy.

Jon Murphy
Feb 4 2024 at 11:46am

Thank you for the alert, but I am not sure what triggered the warning.

The quoted sentence where you said the silence “suggested” people couldn’t find anything to criticize.

Don Boudreaux
Feb 2 2024 at 4:26pm

Mr. Meoqui,

In the abstract of your 2011 paper you write:

As the production of the cloth required less quantity of labor in Portugal, it has been commonly inferred that this country had a production cost advantage over England in cloth making. This inference will be proven wrong here by showing that the English cloth had a lower cost of production than the Portuguese cloth. This finding refutes the widespread belief that Ricardo had formulated a new law, principle, or rule for international specialization, known as “comparative advantage.

I don’t follow. (Perhaps I’m missing something.) The very point of Ricardo’s example was to show that the fact that less labor was required in Portugal to make cloth than was required in England did not mean that Portugal could produce cloth at a lower cost than could England. Put differently, the fact that the production of cloth in England required more labor than did the production of cloth in Portugal did not mean that the English did not produce cloth at a lower cost than did the Portuguese.

Of course “English cloth had lower cost of production than the Portuguese cloth” – this is the fact that Ricardo established by showing that what matters is not the absolute amount of inputs (here, labor) required to produce each good, but, instead, the amount of other goods (here, wine) sacrificed in one country to produce cloth compared to the amount of wine sacrificed in the other country. In Ricardo’s example in his Chapter 7, the English sacrifice less wine to produce cloth than do the Portuguese – this despite the fact that the English use more labor to produce cloth than do the Portuguese.

So Ricardo’s example can’t be dismissed or discounted by a showing that “the English cloth had a lower cost of production than the Portuguese cloth.” The reason is that this is the very fact that Ricardo meant to establish with his example.

It is certainly true that all trade is done along the lines of comparative advantage; that was true even for any examples that Adam Smith might have offered. But there is no clear record that Smith understood comparative advantage – that he recognized, as Ricardo did, that what matters is the comparative costs of outputs in terms, not of inputs used, but of outputs forgone. It’s the ‘bringing out’ of this latter reality that is the achievement of Ricardo.

Jorge Morales Meoqui
Feb 3 2024 at 7:48am

Mr. Boudreaux,
Thank you for the reply.
I am not sure if I correctly understand your point of view.
Are you perhaps suggesting that it has been clear all along that the Portuguese cloth had a lower cost of production than the English cloth?
On page 435 of the 2021 paper, I wrote:

“From Ricardo’s indication that the making of the cloth would have required less quantity of labor in Portugal than in England, it has been erroneously inferred that the Portuguese cloth had to have had a lower cost of production than the English cloth. This raises serious doubts about the possibility of selling the English cloth in Portugal, as recognized by Faccarello (2015, p. 760). He imagined traders making arbitrages on commodities but also acknowledged that this kind of complicated solution did not respect Ricardo’s line of thought. In contrast, the solution proposed in this paper is not only strikingly simple but also compatible with the primary source: the English cloth could be sold in Portugal because it had a lower cost of production than the Portuguese cloth. This means, of course, that Portugal had no production cost advantage over England in cloth making.”

In footnote one on page 435, I refer to two recent examples of the common interpretation that Portuguese cloth had a lower cost of production than English cloth.
Or are you suggesting that Ricardo used the opportunity cost approach in his numerical example?

SK
Feb 2 2024 at 12:18pm

Excellent discussion of the shortcomings of Cass and views of others who view things like him.  In the real world people and business trade products and services with those desiring those things.  Nations do not trade with each other.

As to how Cass views comparative advantage which he seems to in a very simple sense it seems to me he ought to take in to account the fact that gov microeconomic policy via rules and regulations might actually affect his view of why some products/services in a given nation are more/less produced than in another nation.

I find a shortcoming in criticism of market, exchange and trade is too many do not think about how existing government policies affect the supposed less than desirable outcomes they see.

Anyway, good job in understanding the real world and not simplistic restatement of textbook description of what comparative analysis is…

 

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 5:12pm

What I present here is the textbook analysis of comparative advantage.  I’m just going through it very carefully as an innoculation against the misunderstanding Cass (and many others) have.

Andrew_FL
Feb 2 2024 at 2:07pm

Computer chips are an odd choice for Cass and the like to single out as lamentably imported, as their production is very low labor intensity. I was under the impression they wanted lots of manufacturing jobs not valuable manufacturing output.

Matthias
Feb 4 2024 at 5:00am

Do you have sources for the notion that the production of computer chips is not labour intensive?

What definition of labour intensity do you use here?

vince
Feb 2 2024 at 3:30pm

 

Cass accepts comparative advantage.  This is what he says:

 

Anyone advocating for a reasoned approach to trade policy will acknowledge happily that the arithmetic of comparative advantage works on a blackboard, but recognize that its assumptions are unrealistic and policy implications limited because so many other factors and forces are also at play in determining the effects of international trade on a nation’s prosperity.

https://lawliberty.org/forum/the-banality-of-market-fundamentalism/

 

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 4:55pm

He doesn’t accept it. He explicitly rejects it. But he rejects it because he misunderstands it. Thus the point of my post.

vince
Feb 2 2024 at 6:01pm

 

Ironically, in the same article, he writes:

 

Thus, market fundamentalism puts great emphasis on policing who “understands” the truth, which is a prerequisite to commenting on the fundamentalist’s views, conveniently excluding anyone who disagrees.

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 6:09pm

Not sure what you think is ironic here.

Jon Murphy
Feb 2 2024 at 5:07pm

But, of course, whether Cass accepts or rejects comparative advantage is wholly irrelevant. What matters is that he fundamentally misunderstands it. These misunderstandings are common. So, I am trying to take action to correct them.

Jon Murphy
Feb 4 2024 at 11:45am

A technical footnote on my comment about complete specalization in this post:

Complete specalization is a possibility under comparative advantage, but there are two major conditions that must occur:

First: There must be constant costs of production

Second: both trading partners must be of roughly equal size such that the imports of one country can entirely satisfy the quantity demanded at the given price.

If either of those conditions fail, then complete specalization will not occur.

That both conditions are satisfied simultaneously is highly improbable in the real world.

For the first, the Law of Diminishing Marginal Returns kicks in.  Labor and capital are not identical across production (ie a farmer cannot costlessly and perfectly become a computer manufacturer).  Rarely do we have constant costs.  Rather, increasing costs are more probable.  Thus, each country will only partially specalize, the point of specalization being where their relative costs converge.

For the second, countries will vary in terms of size.  If one nation is relatively large and the other relatively small, the relatively small country will completely specalize.  The large country will import all it can, but then have to rely on domestic production to satisfy the remainder of the quantity demanded.  Thus, the large country will only partially specalize.

So, Cass’s argument, while not technically wrong on that precise point, is dealing with an unrealistic edge case.

Knut P. Heen
Feb 6 2024 at 8:12am

Comparative advantage is fundamental to Darwin’s theory of evolution. I read somewhere that Darwin got the idea from Malthus.

What surprises me is that people only talk about comparative advantage in connection with international trade. It is much more important domestically because the volume of domestic trade is much larger (at least for the larger countries).

In the case of international trade, the comparative advantage argument is still strong, but somewhat weaker if there is a probability of trade collapse due to foreign aggression. You need steel, oil, and, weapons (perhaps even computer chips) to defend your freedoms.

Jon Murphy
Feb 6 2024 at 8:28am

Comparative advantage is fundamental to Darwin’s theory of evolution. I read somewhere that Darwin got the idea from Malthus.

Does Malthus discuss comparative advantage?

What surprises me is that people only talk about comparative advantage in connection with international trade. It is much more important domestically because the volume of domestic trade is much larger (at least for the larger countries).

While comparative advantage does tend to be discussed in the popular (ie non-academic) world primarily in the context of international trade, it is not the case that comparative advantage is only spoken about in that context.  Just about any intro economics textbook will introduce comparative advantage early and build microeconomics off that.

In the case of international trade, the comparative advantage argument is still strong, but somewhat weaker if there is a probability of trade collapse due to foreign aggression.

Can you be a little more specific about what you mean by “the comparative advantage argument”?  Like I say at the beginning, comparative advantage isn’t an argument; it’s a descriptor.  It’s a description of how people actually trade, not an argument for how they should trade.  To call it an “argument” doesn’t make any more sense than to call gravity an “argument.”

I am preparing a short post on the national defense argument as we speak, but here’s a preview: COVID has me think that the national defense exception to free trade is really a very special case.  There’s substantial evidence coming out that nations who were more protectionist fared worse (in terms of shortages) during COVID than nations who were more globalized.  At the microeconomic level, the same holds true for firms: firms who were more globalized had fewer disruptions to their production than firms who relied on wholly domestic suppliers.  It seems to me the national defense justification only holds for extremely small (in terms of geography) nations who can be easily embargoed.

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