Shortly after the “Liberation Day” tariffs were announced back in April, Janet Bufton wrote an excellent post about whether or not Adam Smith would approve of those so-called “reciprocal” tariffs. I also riffed off her post here. In both cases, we argued these tariffs were not compliant with Smith’s argument and thus he would not have approved of them.
Six months later, we have four pieces of good evidence that U.S. tariffs would not have met with Smith’s approval.
First, as I have discussed before, these tariff rates are unrelated to any restrictions foreign nations have placed on U.S. exports. Rather, they are based on trade deficits and the opaque motivations of the executive branch.
Second, the handful of “deals” motivated by these tariffs have resulted in higher tariffs, not lower ones.
Smith’s discussion on reciprocal tariffs is in Book 4, Chapter 2 of The Wealth of Nations (WN, pages 467–468 of the Liberty Fund/Glasgow Edition). Smith writes:
Note the two conditions for tariffs required for Smith to qualify them as good policy:
- The tariffs result in the repeal of foreign nations’ tariffs,
- The domestic tariffs are temporary and short-lived, and are repealed once the foreign nation’s reductions take effect.
In some cases, the new trade deals have led to lower tariffs on U.S. exports. So, the first condition is met. But all of these result in higher tariffs on foreign goods being made permanent. The second condition is not met.
The third piece of evidence is that the Trump Administration has often and repeatedly cited mercantilist justifications for the tariffs (e.g., their arguments before the U.S. International Trade Court, Federal Court of Appeals, and likely the Supreme Court that trade deficits constitute a national emergency). Reciprocity or negotiation is frequently omitted or given short shrift. Smith rather explicitly calls these types of arguments “absurd” (WN 488).
Fourth and finally, the Trump administration is counting on decades of tariff revenue. That certainly means these are not temporary negotiation tools. It doesn’t make sense to speak of permanent tax revenue from a temporary tariff.
Adam Smith certainly would not approve of these tariffs. Rather, he would have rejected them. Smith dismisses the mercantilist grounds on which they’re based as “absurd.” On revenue grounds, they violate his maxims (WN 825–827), including the maxim that taxes shouldn’t be arbitrary (WN 825). Given how often these tariffs are adjusted or imposed without warning, they violate the non-arbitrary maxim.
There is a habit of inventing post hoc justifications for tariffs on Smithian grounds. Rather, I think we should just take Donald Trump and his administration at their word. They are mercantilists, through and through. And Adam Smith did not approve of mercantilism.
READER COMMENTS
steve
Oct 28 2025 at 10:06pm
I suspect that Smith would also have objected to Trump granting exemptions to preferred companies ie picking winners and losers. I think he would have also objected to Trump having the US take on partial ownership of some US companies. I think we used to call stuff like that socialism but I guess it doesnt count if Trump does it.
Steve
Jon Murphy
Oct 28 2025 at 10:12pm
Yes indeed. In fact, I read Smith’s objection about the East India Company not about monopoly per se, but rather about the merger of state and mercantile interest.
Mactoul
Oct 29 2025 at 2:17am
Clearly the author of Wealth of Nations is not averse from arguing from a national point of view– the point about recovery of a great foreign market. Neither does he maintain that imposition of tariffs is an unjust interference with liberty of trade per se or that it is unjust to treat foreigners any different from the citizens.
Jon Murphy
Oct 29 2025 at 5:38am
I don’t understand what you’re trying to say here.
Yes he does. He says so rather explicitly (See: pgs. 530.16, 582.44, 627.83, 628.84, & 935.72 of the LF edition).
True. Treating foreigners the same as citizens is just.
Mactoul
Oct 30 2025 at 12:12am
When you write
it is natural to conclude that you think Adam Smith considered tariffs to be good policy in some cases. This is stronger than mere admissibility. Or is it to be concluded that per Adam Smith tariffs are unjust interference with liberty of trade per se but still good policy when certain conditions obtain?
Jon Murphy
Oct 30 2025 at 7:47am
The latter. Tariffs are inherently unjust. But they may be good policy under certain circumstances.
MarkW
Oct 29 2025 at 5:23am
I think we should just take Donald Trump and his administration at their word. They are mercantilists, through and through.
Yes. And they have justified this mercantilism and gained widespread support for it using popular appeals that would have been familiar to Smith and other economists of the past (China is the new ‘perfidious Albion’). But supporters of Trump and his tariffs don’t know this because they know little or nothing of economic history. A clear example ‘Those who do not know history are condemned to repeat it’.
Jon Murphy
Oct 29 2025 at 5:42pm
Good stuff. The only nit I’ll pick with your comment is describing support for tariffs as “widespread.” It doesn’t appear that way. Poll after poll shows voters disapprove of his tariffs (see most recently here). I suspect (although I have no evidence for this) that is why the Trump Administration is putting so much effort into winning before the Supreme Court. They probably do not have the votes to get the tariffs approved in Congress nor the popular vote to pressure Congress.
MarkW
Oct 30 2025 at 6:42am
I hadn’t seen the recent polling — that is good news. I strongly suspect that the level of opposition that currently exists is due to the belief that the tariffs are causing inflation rather than any understanding of the economic principles involved. But I guess we take what we can get.
Mactoul
Oct 30 2025 at 10:14pm
Isn’t it rather like stealing is inherently unjust but may be a good policy under certain circumstances?
What is the value and force of the qualifier “inherently”?
Or perhaps government is allowed a certain leeway in perpetrating inherent injustices. But in that case, what other injustices Adam Smith may be allowing government to commit provided they are good policy?
Jon Murphy
Oct 30 2025 at 10:23pm
The last. Fortunately, Smith wrote a whole 1,000 page book on the topic.
Mactoul
Oct 31 2025 at 6:23am
Fortunately? Won’t a shorter book be more fortunate?
Does Adam Smith propose any limiting principle on the permissibility of governments to commit injustices?
Jon Murphy
Oct 31 2025 at 8:06am
Yes. See Books III, IV, and in particular V of Wealth of Nations. Also his Lectures on Jurisprudence and Theory of Moral Sentiments (I do not recall where precisely that discussion takes place in TMS).
Jon Murphy
Oct 31 2025 at 8:09am
Although your question, the way it is phrased, gets Smith backward. The phrasing if your question implies that government action is permitted except in some limiting circumstances. In reality, for Smith and for liberals in general, government action is only permitted in a limited set of circumstances. There is a presumption of liberty, not a presumption of intervention. The burden of proof lies with the government that their infringement of liberty is reasonable and approval-worthy. The burden of proof is not on the individual to resist encroachment.
Jon Murphy
Oct 30 2025 at 10:26pm
Also see his Theory of Moral Sentiments and Lectures on Jurisprudence. All available quite cheaply from Liberty Fund.