In my previous post, I discussed how Milton Friedman was right about 4 key issues during the 1960s and 1970s. He argued that interest rates are not a good indicator of the stance of monetary policy. He argued that the long run Phillips Curve was vertical, which means no long run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment. He argued that fiscal policy was not an effective way to control inflation. And he suggested that wage/price controls would not work.
But why was he able to see what other top economists failed to see? What do these four cases have in common? Perhaps conventional economists were putting too little emphasis on the distinction between real and nominal variables. Friedman saw that persistent inflation is a nominal problem, and it has nominal causes.
Edward Nelson (vol. 2, pp. 155-56) quotes Friedman in 1977, looking back on his 1967 Presidential address:
The essence of my argument in that paper was that the monetary authorities had a monetary instrument with which they could ultimately control only monetary variables, such as the price level and nominal income; that it is not possible to use monetary instruments to achieve a real target, whether that real target be the real interest rate or real output or unemployment rate.
When analyzing inflation, Keynesians were explicitly or implicitly focused on 4 real variables:
1. real interest rates
2. unemployment
3. the velocity of money
4. price mark-ups (in percentage terms)
1. In the 1960s, Keynesian wrongly assumed that rising nominal interest rates represented rising real interest rates, and hence “tight money”. There are actually two problems here. The obvious problem is that nominal interest rates might be rising due to inflation (the Fisher effect.) The less obvious problem is that although tight money often does temporarily increase real interest rates, it is not true that rising real interest rates imply tight money. Real interest rates move around for many different reasons. And finally, for any given money supply, higher nominal interest rates are actually inflationary, as they boost velocity.
2. Keynesians wrongly assumed a long run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment. While it is true that a tight monetary policy raises unemployment in the short run, it is not true that rising unemployment implies tight money, or lower inflation (as we saw in the 1970s.) For any given level of nominal GDP (M*V), a booming economy is actually deflationary. Low unemployment can co-exist with low inflation, as we saw in 2019. High unemployment can co-exist with high inflation, as we saw in 1981.
3. Keynesians typically don’t talk about velocity. But the claim that fiscal policy can control inflation is implicitly a claim that fiscal austerity reduces velocity. Nominal spending is M*V, so if you don’t plan to control the money supply, the only (demand-side) way to reduce inflation is by reducing velocity. Friedman didn’t think fiscal policy had much effect on velocity, and even if it did, it would at most be a modest one-time effect. If the Fed boosts the growth rate of the money supply from 5%/year to 10%/year (at a time of positive interest rates), you are almost certainly going to eventually end up with higher inflation. Even if a tax increase reduces the velocity of circulation by 2% in a single year, it will have almost no impact on longer run inflation, which is driven by rapid money growth.
Here’s very important distinction. If you boost money growth from 5% to 10%/year, if will cause inflation to be roughly 5% higher as long as the rapid money growth continues. Fiscal policy is not like that. Even if you permanently switch to a more expansionary fiscal policy, it will only cause a one-time increase in velocity. Monetary policy works by influencing a nominal variable (M), while fiscal policy works by influencing a real variable (V). It’s really hard to cause persistent inflation by influencing real variables like velocity. In contrast, it’s easy to increase the money supply growth rate as much as you like.
4. The same argument applies to price controls. Let’s say that firms have some monopoly power and that price controls are able to reduce price mark-ups by 2%. That merely produces a one-time 2% fall in the price level, relative to where it would otherwise have been. Go much further with price controls and you end up with severe shortages. But if the Fed is simultaneously boosting money growth from 5%/year to 10%/year, the disinflation effects of the price controls will be overwhelmed by the effects of faster money growth. That’s the story of the 1970s.
To summarize, Keynesians were treating inflation like it was a microeconomic problem, which could be addressed by influencing real variables. It’s true that if you want to lower the relative price of a single good in the economy, you need policies that impact real variables. But inflation is a nominal phenomenon, and it requires nominal solutions. You need to reduce the growth rate of the nominal money supply.
In some respects the Keynesian mistake was understandable. Between 1879 and 1968, the price of gold was fixed, except during 1933-34 when it rose from $20.67/oz. to $35/oz. During much of that long period, people tended to think in terms of high and low price levels, not high or low rates of persistent inflation. In a world where price levels bounce up and down and inflation is not persistent, the four Keynesian fallacies discussed above are much less of a problem. Real and nominal interest rates are similar, the Phillips Curve is more stable, tax increases can slightly reduce the price level during a period of high prices, and price controls can have a modest effect during a temporary price level surge.
But if the inflation rate rises from 2% to 8%/year, and the high inflation persists for a long period, then real theories of inflation become almost worthless. It’s a monetarist world, and Milton Friedman was the master of that world.
PS. Some of these arguments are less applicable to a world of zero interest rates. But Friedman was winning his arguments with the Keynesians at a time when nominal interest rates were far above zero.
READER COMMENTS
BC
Jun 20 2021 at 6:30am
What about real supply shocks? They affect the price level but is the idea that they don’t affect persistent inflation? Even if the supply shock affects the long-run real growth rate and long-run unemployment rate, because the long-run AS curve is vertical, the Fed still picks the long-run inflation rate. Is that the idea?
Is the natural rate hypothesis equivalent to saying that the long-run AS curve is vertical and that monetary policy can only affect AD but not AS?
Alan Goldhammer
Jun 20 2021 at 8:01am
This is a real good question. I remember when OPEC was formed and the oil cartel quickly controlled the price of oil, increasing prices quite dramatically. It was not only the price of gasoline that was impacted but heating oil and all the various industrial and consumer products based on petroleum. there is a pretty good Wikipedia entry on this, focusing on the 1973 embargo.
I’m sure there were other impacts on the 1970s inflation but the oil shock was clearly non-monetary.
Scott Sumner
Jun 20 2021 at 2:04pm
Real supply shocks could in principle have a big effect on inflation, by persistently reducing real output. In the US, supply shocks have only a transitory effect on output growth, and thus inflation. Even during 1971-81, growth averaged over 3%/year, so the supply side wasn’t causing the inflation, it was the 11% NGDP growth. So yes, the Fed chooses the long run inflation rate. That’s not even debatable.
Yes, the Natural Rate Hypothesis implies a vertical LRAS.
Thomas Lee Hutcheson
Jun 20 2021 at 9:31am
The claim that changes in any of the monetary variables within a central banks control can have no effect on real variables seems to fly in the face of “A Monetary History of the United States.” It would be plausible only if all prices were completely flexible in the face of real shocks.
“Keynesian wrongly assumed a long run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment.”
I’m not sure they did, but even a short run trade-off implies that optimal monetary policy needs to take account of real variables like employment. Nor does it imply that fiscal deficits should not be procyclical.
“But the claim that fiscal policy can control inflation …” was not a “Keynesian” claim at the time of Freidman’s address (if ever).
4. The same argument applies to price controls.
A one time shock to the price level (in a situation in which inflation is above target) ought to have SOME effect on expectations and thus on the optimal settings of monetary instruments aiming at its desired targets for inflation and employment.
You do Freidman’s reputation no favors by contrasting his arguments to pose them as responses to straw man counter-arguments.
Scott Sumner
Jun 21 2021 at 1:44pm
Yes, monetary policy can affect real variables, but it cannot target them.
Nixon’s wage/price controls were supported by most of the top Keynesian economists. (Samuelson, Heller, Tobin, Okun, Ackley, Galbraith, etc.)
LBJ’s 1968 tax increase was seen by Keynesians as a way to control inflation.
I’d encourage you to actually study the history of this period in order to avoid making false claims.
Lizard Man
Jun 21 2021 at 1:07am
Is this statement, “no long run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment” meant to also signify that there is no long run tradeoff between inflation and employment to population ratio? Or labor participation rate and inflation?
Also, how long is the long run? Would it be accurate to say that Fed policy did not lower employment during the period of time from 2006-2019? How is it logically consistent that the Fed can influence inflation and employment over such a long period of time if there is no long run tradeoff between inflation and employment (assuming that the Fed did in fact influence inflation and employment)?
Dale Doback
Jun 21 2021 at 11:06am
The vagueness around short and long term has always bothered me. I think most people would say one year is long term, but most monetary economists would say one year is short term.
Scott Sumner
Jun 21 2021 at 1:47pm
You asked:
“Is this statement, “no long run tradeoff between inflation and unemployment” meant to also signify that there is no long run tradeoff between inflation and employment to population ratio? Or labor participation rate and inflation?”
Yes.
The short run is generally regarded as a few years. But as always, in economics it depends on numerous factors. A bigger shock has a longer term effect.
Brian Donohue
Jun 21 2021 at 11:35am
This is excellent. Thanks.
bill
Jun 22 2021 at 7:16am
Can you talk about the counter-arguments I read regarding the lower correlation of money supply and inflation since 2008? How much of this do you attribute to IOR, for example? To other factors? A chart of the balance sheet of the Fed looks nothing like the price level since then.
Thanks.
Scott Sumner
Jun 22 2021 at 2:56pm
It’s a combination of IOR and near zero interest rates. When the rate of IOR is close to market rates, demand for base money soars. IOR was much lower than market rates prior to 2008.
bill
Jun 22 2021 at 6:23pm
Thanks.
I was surprised the Fed has already starting raising IOR. 15 bps for overnight money when the 1 year Treasury is at 9 bps!
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